Past Papers · 2018A

2018 First Sitting SAQs

Exact question wording and reported performance data are preserved from the CICM examiner report. CICMWrecks answers load only when requested and link back to their canonical question.

View 2018A VIVAs →

Exam outcomes

50% (28/56)Written pass · MCQ + SAQ
97% (28/29)Oral pass · VIVAs
49.1% (28/57)*Overall pass · CICMWrecks-derived
How passing worked

Written pass: candidates successful in both written components (MCQ + SAQ) and progressing to the oral examination, divided by candidates presenting for the written examination.

Oral pass: candidates successful after the oral component, divided by candidates sitting the oral examination. The First Part oral component consists of VIVAs.

Carry-over: 1 candidate entered the oral component carrying a written pass from a previous sitting.

* Overall pass: a CICMWrecks-derived contextual figure: final successful candidates ÷ (candidates presenting for the written examination + candidates carrying a written pass). It is not a CICM-reported pass percentage.

1

2018A · Question 1

Oxygen Transport — Tissue Delivery

Current · V5 (2025) C7.i · primary
Exam question

Describe the carriage of oxygen in the blood, including total oxygen delivery per minute.

Other appearances: 2016A Q01 · 2026A Q02

32%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

etter answers divided oxygen carriage into that bound to haemoglobin and that carried in the dissolved form. A reasonable amount of detail on the haemoglobin structure and its binding of oxygen was expected, including an explanation of co-operative binding and the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin. Better answers mentioned Henry’s law in the description of dissolved oxygen, along with an estimation of the amount of oxygen that is normally in the dissolved form. It was expected that answers include the equation for oxygen delivery, a brief description of the components of that equation and the normal value, which a large number of candidates omitted.

2
Exam question

Compare and contrast the pharmacology of adrenaline and milrinone.

Other appearances: 2026A Q03

45%Successful candidates
3

2018A · Question 3

Dead Space

Current · V5 (2025) C6.ii · primary
Exam question

Define dead space and its components (30% of marks). Explain how these may be measured (35% of marks) and describe the physiological impact of increased dead space (35% of marks).

Other appearances: 2010A Q19 · 2025B Q02

59%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Some candidates failed to provide a correct definition of dead space. An outline of anatomical, alveolar and physiological dead space was expected. The Bohr equation was commonly incorrect, and many did not comment on how to measure the components of the Bohr equation. Fowler’s method was generally well described though some plotted the axes incorrectly. The impact of increased dead space was not often well explained. Very few people stated the major impact of increased dead space is reduced minute ventilation and how this would affect CO2.

4

2018A · Question 4

Renal Tubular Physiology — Sodium Handling

Current · V5 (2025) F1.v · primary
Exam question

Describe the renal handling of sodium.

Other appearances: 2009B Q22 · 2014B Q23

46%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

A description of filtration and reabsorption, including amounts was required. Better answers described sodium handling in a logical sequence as it progressed through the nephron including the percentages reabsorbed in each segment. In addition to the amounts reabsorbed, the mechanisms of transport across the tubular luminal and basolateral membranes into interstitial space should have been described. aldosterone = stimulates Na+ reabsorption at the collecting tubules intra renal factors such as interstitial pressure which is lowered during hypovolaemia and reduced renal perfusion, thus promoting Na+ reabsorption gradient sympathetic nervous system – influences interstitial pressure and increases renin production angiotensin II – stimulates reabsorption at proximal tubule Atrial Naturetic Peptide/Factor – inhibits Na+ reabsorption Others – dopamine, cortisol, insulin => increase Na+ reabsorption, but minor factors Syllabus – D1, 2f Reference – Textbook of medical Physiology, Guyton, Chp 28

5

2018A · Question 5

Fentanyl vs Remifentanil

Current · V5 (2025) H6.iii · primary
Exam question

Compare and contrast the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of IV fentanyl and IV remifentanil (60% of marks). Discuss the concept of context sensitive half-time using these drugs as examples (40% of marks).

Other appearances: 2024A Q09

66%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Well-constructed answers were presented in a table to compare pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics with a separate paragraph to discuss the concept of context sensitive halftime. Important pharmacokinetic points included: the differences in lipid solubility, ionised fractions and onset, and differences in metabolism. Marks were awarded for a definition of context-sensitive half-time. A discussion of these two drugs’ context-sensitive half-times should have included the differences in re-distribution into other compartments and rates of elimination.

6

2018A · Question 6

Acid–Base Buffers — Body Buffer Systems

Current · V5 (2025) G1.iii · primary
Exam question

Define a buffer (25% of marks). Describe how acid and base shifts in the blood are buffered (75% of marks).

Other appearances: 2025A Q04 · 2014A Q22 · 2021A Q11

45%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Few candidates defined a buffer making it difficult to award 25% of the marks for this question.
The three main buffers in blood should have been described: bicarbonate system, haemoglobin
and proteins. The pKa, the buffering mechanism and the capacity of the system should have
been described. The Henderson Hasselbach equation was sometimes incorrect. Marks were
only awarded for buffers in blood and unfortunately some candidates described non-blood
buffers.

7

2018A · Question 7

GI Blood Supply

Current · V5 (2025) J1.i · primary
Exam question

Outline the blood supply to the gastrointestinal system (arteries and veins).

Other appearances: 2021A Q07

7%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

An outline of the blood supply from the oesophagus down to the anus was expected. Very few candidates knew the branches of the main 3 arteries and which portion of the gastrointestinal system they supplied. Concepts related to control of blood flow and autoregulation of blood flow were not asked and therefore marks were not awarded for this information.

8

2018A · Question 8

Oxygen Monitoring — Co-oximetry

Current · V5 (2025) C9.i · primary
Exam question

Outline the principle of co-oximetry (40% of marks), describe what a co-oximeter is able to measure (30% of marks), and compare its limitations to those of a pulse oximeter (30% of marks).

32%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Most candidates confused co-oximetry with other methods of measuring oxygenation of blood. Whilst there were a number of excellent descriptions of pulse oximetry, these attracted no marks for the first two sections. Structuring the answer based on the three parts asked, would have improved answers ensuring all aspects of the question were addressed.

9

2018A · Question 9

Placental Function & Blood Flow

Current · V5 (2025) P2.i · primary
Exam question

Describe the functions of the placenta (80% of marks). Outline the determinants of placental blood flow (20% of marks).

Other appearances: 2021B Q06 · 2025B Q07

32%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Many candidates provided a broad overview of functions of the placenta but lacked detail. Placental blood flow has maternal and foetal components, though most only considered the maternal circulation to the placenta and didn't mention the foetal vessels. Many were not specific as to what blood vessels were described. Many stated that uterine blood flow is not autoregulated, however went on to describe myogenic and neuro-humoral mechanisms of autoregulation

10

2018A · Question 10

Suxamethonium — Clinical Use

Current · V5 (2025) I3.i · primary
Exam question

Outline the advantages (15% of marks) and disadvantages (85% of marks) of the clinical use of suxamethonium.

Other appearances: 2012B Q02

46%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

This commonly used drug should be very well-known. The question asked for an outline, hence long explanations of various aspects of pharmacology (e.g. pseudocholinesterase deficiency) were unnecessary. Headings should have included: advantages (e.g. rapid onset, rapid offset, short acting, IV or IM administration, not end organ dependent for metabolism, premixed, safe in pregnancy and neonates). The disadvantages section should have included the following headings: pharmaceutical, adverse drug reactions (including several potentially fatal ones), numerous contraindications, unpleasant side-effects and potential problems with repeat dosing. 2012B 02: 13 (59.1%) of candidates passed. For a good answer candidates were expected to mention that an agonist is a drug that elicits a maximal response on binding to a receptor. A partial agonist has intrinsic affinity with only partial efficacy and hence is unable to elicit a maximal response. A competitive drug acts at the same binding site of a receptor as an endogenous ligand (e.g. acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction) and its action therefore is surmountable with increasing concentrations of drug and how this concept relates to suxemethonium. For the remainder of the question, Candidates were expected to mention the advantages and disadvantages of suxamethonium within Intensive Care practice. Good answers included a systematic approach and use of tables and/or well organised lists.

11

2018A · Question 11

Coronary Circulation

Current · V5 (2025) D4.iv · primary
Exam question

Describe the regulation of the coronary circulation.

Other appearances: 2014B Q10 · 2008B Q11 · 2021A Q19 · 2023A Q15

46%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Some answers suffered from listing things rather than describing things as the question required. Better answers included a description of metabolic, physical and neuro-humoral factors and the relative importance of each. Many described detailed anatomy which was not necessary.

12

2018A · Question 12

Cardiac Cycle — Ventricular Diastole

Current · V5 (2025) D2.ii · primary
Exam question

Briefly describe the cardiac events that occur during ventricular diastole.

Other appearances: 2011A Q21 · 2024B Q13

29%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Many answers lacked structure and contained insufficient information. Better answers defined diastole and described the mechanical events in the 4 phases of diastole. A common error was the ECG events in diastole. The electrical events and coronary blood flow should have been mentioned.

Exam question

Explain the difference between viscosity and density (10% of marks). Describe the effects of changes in viscosity and density on the flow of gases and liquids (90% of marks).

46%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Whilst most candidates defined density correctly, there was a lot of uncertainty regarding viscosity. Most candidates recognised that flow may be laminar, turbulent or transitional. Most accurately recounted Reynolds number and applied this correctly. Additionally, the Poiseuille equation was correctly stated by most candidates and correctly related to laminar flow. Few candidates recalled the equation describing turbulent flow

14

2018A · Question 14

Autonomic Pharmacology — Anticholinesterases

Current · V5 (2025) H6.viii · primary
Exam question

Classify anticholinesterase drugs according to chemical interaction with an example of each (30% of marks). Outline the pharmacodynamic effects of anticholinesterase drugs and their clinical indications (70% of marks).

Other appearances: 2015A Q21

32%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Many candidates who scored poorly confused anticholinesterase drugs with anticholinergic drugs. Some described pharmacokinetics when it was not asked. Similarly, treatment of organophosphate poisoning and/or cholinergic crisis was not asked for in the question.

15

2018A · Question 15

Intracranial Pressure — Physiology

Current · V5 (2025) H2.i · primary
Exam question

Describe the physiological regulation of intracranial pressure.

Other appearances: 2010A Q18 · 2016A Q14

45%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

A definition and a normal value were expected. A description of the Monro-Kellie doctrine was expected. Better answers divided into the various components of the cranium with the answer focussing on cerebral blood volume and CSF volume as the brain tissue as no capacity to change its volume.

16

2018A · Question 16

Diuretics — Frusemide vs Acetazolamide

Current · V5 (2025) E3.i · primary
Exam question

Compare and contrast the pharmacology of furosemide (frusemide) and acetazolamide.

Other appearances: 2013A Q20 · 2023B Q08

30%Successful candidates
17

2018A · Question 17

IV Fluids — Saline vs Dextrose

Current · V5 (2025) F2.i · primary
Exam question

Define the osmolality and tonicity of an intravenous fluid (20% of marks). Compare and contrast the pharmacology of intravenous Normal Saline 0.9% and 5% Dextrose (80% of marks).

29%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Most candidates gave an adequate definition of osmolality and tonicity. A single concise sentence for each attracted full marks. Some candidates drew diagrams & equations, which added few marks. Some candidates confused osmolarity (mOsm/L) and osmolality (mOsm/kg). Tonicity was best defined as the number of ‘effective’ osmols (those that cannot cross the cell membrane) in a solution relative to plasma. The use of a table greatly facilitated the comparison of 0.9% saline and 5% dextrose solutions. Values for composition, osmolarity and osmolality were poorly done. Some manufacturers state calculated values and some approximate values on the bags – both were accepted. No candidate correctly pointed out the fluids respectively have 9g NaCl and 50g dextrose per litre.

Exam question

Compare and contrast non-invasive oscillometric and invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring.

52%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

There were some good answers, though invasive BP measurement was better answered than oscillometry. Many candidates provided extensive detail in one area i.e. the workings of a Wheatstone bridge, to the detriment of a balanced answer. Few seemed to have a structure consisting of "equipment, method, sources of error, advantages, disadvantages" or similar and missed providing important information as a result. Several described auscultatory non-invasive blood pressure measurement, rather than oscillometry, which although related in principle is a different process.

19

2018A · Question 19

Thermoregulation — Control

Current · V5 (2025) M1.iii · primary
Exam question

Explain the mechanisms by which normal body temperature is maintained and regulated.

Other appearances: 2024A Q16 · 2025A Q16 · 2021A Q09

52%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

The best answers were systematic, using a sensor, integrator, effector approach, while also mentioning physiological variations i.e. diurnal, with ovulatory cycle etc. Few candidates raised the concept of central and peripheral compartments. The differentiation of the concepts of set point, interthreshold range and thermoneutral zone was often confused.

20

2018A · Question 20

Pituitary & Hypothalamus — Hypothalamus

Current · V5 (2025) L1.iii · primary
Exam question

Outline the structure (20% of marks) and function (80% of marks) of the hypothalamus.

Other appearances: 2023A Q16

21%Successful candidates
Examiner report comments

Most candidates understood the endocrine functions of the hypothalamus, and to some degree its interactions with the pituitary. Fewer candidates mentioned the importance of the hypothalamus as an integrator for the autonomic nervous system, or its roles in arousal/emotions. Many candidates had only a vague idea of the structure of the hypothalamus, while the best candidates were able to relate function to structure quite accurately